1.

In general, one can determine whether an animal is experiencing a particular motivational state by:

A)

directly observing the motivational state.

B)

inferring the motivational state from the animal's behavior.

C)

directly measuring what is happening in neurons.

D)

doing all of the above.

2.

Psychologists find it useful to think of ______ and ______ as complementary and interacting components of the motivational process.

A)

incentives; reinforcers

B)

motivational states; drives

C)

motivational states; central drive states

D)

drives; incentives

3.

Your text describes the case of a toddler who demanded large quantities of salt because deficient adrenal glands prevented his body from conserving enough salt. This case illustrates the:

A)

powerful influence of homeostasis on behavior.

B)

deficiency of homeostasis as an explanation for behavior.

C)

necessity of including central drive systems in motivational theories.

D)

critical importance of nonregulatory drives.

4.

Psychologists distinguish between ______, like thirst and hunger, and ______, like sex or the need for acceptance and approval.

A)

regulatory; nonregulatory

B)

nonregulatory; regulatory

C)

central; peripheral

D)

peripheral; central

5.

The set of neurons in which activity constitutes a motivational state is called a:

A)

central drive system.

B)

homeostatic mechanism.

C)

regulatory drive system.

D)

nerve.

6.

In laboratory animals, central drive systems are studied by:

A)

electrical or chemical stimulation of the brain.

B)

electrically or chemically producing lesions in the brain.

C)

using knockout animals.

D)

all of the above methods.

7.

Lesions to the ____ area of the hypothalamus will cause an organism to ignore food and starve to death, whereas stimulation will cause an organism to eat even if they are full.

A)

ventromedial

B)

anterior

C)

medial preoptic

D)

lateral

8.

Neuropeptide Y is a ______ neurotransmitter, which ideally suits it to its function of ______ hunger by acting on lateral hypothalamic neurons.

A)

slow; increasing

B)

slow; decreasing

C)

fast; increasing

D)

fast; decreasing

9.

Forming the face into a particular emotional expression can influence:

A)

mood.

B)

physiological arousal.

C)

both a. and b.

D)

neither a. nor b.

10.

Neuroimaging studies show that the amygdala is most active when a person experiences:

A)

fear.

B)

sadness.

C)

disgust.

D)

surprise.

11.

A woman is eagerly waiting at a coffee shop for her fiance to arrive. When she sees him approaching, she would most likely experience positive emotions associated with increased brain activity in her:

A)

left frontal lobe.

B)

right frontal lobe.

C)

medulla.

D)

pons.

12.

Research has demonstrated that neurons in the lateral hypothalamus that respond to incentives such as food signals are connected to association areas in the frontal lobes of the cerebral cortex. What is the significance of this finding?

A)

It supports the theory that motivational mechanisms work closely with planning mechanisms when an individual chooses a course of action.

B)

It suggests that an appropriate incentive is sufficient to generate a goal-directed behavior.

C)

It suggests that we should be able to consciously alter how attractive a particular incentive is to us.

D)

All of the above.

13.

Why do bilateral lesions in the ventromedial hypothalamus cause animals to eat so much that they become obese?

A)

Because the ventromedial hypothalamus acts as a satiety center, lesioned animals can no longer experience the feeling of having eaten enough.

B)

Because the ventromedial hypothalamus is necessary for switching from one activity to another, lesioned animals are unable to make the transition from eating to another activity.

C)

Because destroying the ventromedial hypothalamus produces parasympathetic overactivity, food is rapidly digested and stored as fat, causing the lesioned animal to experience continuing hunger.

D)

Because destroying the ventromedial hypothalamus prevents the lesioned animal's brain from receiving signals about peripheral tissue needs, the animal keeps on eating.

14.

After a large meal, your appetite was greatly reduced, partly because of signals your hypothalamus received from all of the following EXCEPT your:

A)

stomach.

B)

liver.

C)

intestines.

D)

pituitary gland.

15.

It is believed that rising levels of ______ are responsible for both girls and boys experiencing their first feelings of sexual attraction toward another person, which generally occurs at about age 10.

A)

testosterone

B)

estrogen

C)

DHEA

D)

cortisol

16.

In female rats, the hormones ______ and ______ control the estrous cycle and the sex drive, and increases in the sex drive result from the direct action of these hormones in the ______ area of the hypothalamus.

A)

estrogen; progesterone; ventromedial

B)

estrogen; testosterone; medial preoptic

C)

testosterone; progesterone; ventromedial

D)

estrogen; progesterone; medial preoptic

17.

Research into the sexual drive of female musk shrews has led to which of the following hypotheses about the evolution of the human female sex drive?

A)

The human female sex drive is unique among mammals in its lack of cyclicity in sexual behavior, and it therefore represents a novel adaptation.

B)

Though the sex drive in human females and in female musk shrews is controlled by the same hormone--testosterone--only human females will mate at any time of the estrous cycle, which suggests that social demands among humans override the natural female sex drive.

C)

The testosterone-dominated sex drive of human females represents the endpoint of a gradual evolutionary change from ovarian control in the earliest, most primitive species to less and less ovarian control.

D)

The human female sex drive reverted to that of the earliest mammalian species, in which the central sex-drive system may have been essentially the same in both males and females.

18.

Research with rats indicates that male-female brain differences associated with adult sexual behaviors are determined by the presence or absence of ______ during ______.

A)

estrogen; prenatal development

B)

testosterone; prenatal development

C)

estrogen; puberty

D)

testosterone; puberty

19.

When Olds and Milner implanted electrodes in certain areas of the brains of rats, the rats spent hours on end pressing a lever that sent an impulse into these areas. When the brains of human subjects were similarly wired, which of the following was found?

A)

Stimulation had no effect on the subjects' feelings or behavior.

B)

Subjects who were given the opportunity to self-stimulate tended to do so as compulsively as the rats had.

C)

The subjects reported feeling different types of pleasure with electrical stimulation in different areas of the brain.

D)

The subjects reported feeling intense sexual pleasure no matter which area of the brain was electrically stimulated.

20.

Many of the neurons in the pathway containing the most effective neural reward areas use ______ as their transmitter.

A)

endorphins

B)

dopamine-blocking drugs

C)

dopamine

D)

serotonin

21.

Which of the following results were obtained in studies of rats allowed to self-stimulate particular areas of their brains with an electrical current?

A)

Subjects self-stimulated more slowly if they were hungry and more rapidly if they had eaten.

B)

Subjects self-stimulated more rapidly if they were hungry and more slowly if they had eaten.

C)

Subjects that were hungry self-stimulated when food was present and stopped when it was removed.

D)

Subjects stopped self-stimulating when food was presented to them whether they were hungry or not.

22.

Which of the following is most useful as an index of sleep?

A)

steroid levels in the blood

B)

the EEG

C)

the degree of muscle tension in the limbs

D)

the onset of rapid eye movement

23.

The electroencephalogram (EEG) records three types of electrical activity: ______ waves when a person is awake and attentive, ______ waves when a person is awake but relaxed and nonattentive, and ______ waves when a person is in deep sleep.

A)

fast irregular; slow regular; slow irregular

B)

slow regular; fast irregular; slow irregular

C)

fast regular; slow irregular; slow regular

D)

fast regular; fast irregular; slow regular

24.

Unsynchronized EEG (fast, irregular beta waves) characterizes both:

A)

REM sleep and high arousal when awake.

B)

REM sleep and a relaxed, inattentive awake state.

C)

nondreaming, deep sleep and a relaxed, inattentive awake state.

D)

light sleep and a relaxed, inattentive awake state.

25.

Delta waves are characteristic of ______, the time when sleepwalking and sleeptalking take place.

A)

sleep stage 1

B)

sleep stage 2

C)

REM sleep

D)

sleep stages 3-4

26.

During which stage does a sleeper produce an unsynchronized EEG similar to that of an awake, alert person?

A)

REM sleep

B)

stage 2

C)

stage 3

D)

stage 4

27.

Which of the following statements about REM sleep is true?

A)

REM is also referred to as sleep stage 4.

B)

We spend increasing amounts of time in REM through the course of a night's sleep.

C)

REM is the time when sleep talking is most likely to occur.

D)

REM is the time when the greatest amount of motor activity occurs during sleep.

28.

The general pattern of sleep over the course of a normal night consists of a:

A)

steady deepening of sleep from stage 1 at the beginning of sleep to stage 4 at its conclusion.

B)

steady lightening of sleep from stage 4 at the beginning of sleep to stage 1 at its conclusion.

C)

series of several cycles in which sleep gradually deepens and then rapidly lightens.

D)

gradual deepening of sleep during the first half of the sleep period, followed by a gradual lightening during the second half.

29.

Following extreme physical exercise, sleep is usually deeper and lasts somewhat longer. This fact tends to support the ______ theory of sleep.

A)

peripheral feedback

B)

restoration

C)

preservation and protection

D)

circadian rhythm

30.

In circadian-clock experiments with humans, Charles Czeisler found that:

A)

most subjects kept their personal circadian rhythm virtually intact regardless of time cues.

B)

altering their customary lighting conditions helped nonsomniacs to sleep at night, but did not help insomniacs.

C)

a few hours of bright, artificial light at night coupled with avoidance of natural light during the day could reverse subjects' circadian clocks.

D)

altering their customary lighting conditions helped subjects with abnormal sleep patterns to achieve normal sleep patterns, but the consequent decrease in REM sleep made the subjects irritable when awake.

31.

One theory of the purpose of dreams is that they are merely a side effect of:

A)

deep wishes normally hidden in the unconscious mind.

B)

the wish to remember the significant events of the day.

C)

the physiological changes that take place during REM sleep.

D)

a surplus of energy.

32.

Suppose that three groups of monkeys are trained on a specific motor task just prior to sleep. Monkeys in group 1 are selectively deprived of REM sleep (by being woken up each time they start to enter it). Monkeys in group 2 are selectively deprived of slow-wave sleep. Monkeys in group 3 are allowed to sleep normally. The next morning, the monkeys are retested on the same motor task. If we find that groups 2 and 3 perform better than they did the night before, while those in group 1 perform the same or worse, our results would most clearly support the role of:

A)

slow-wave sleep in physical restoration.

B)

REM sleep in memory consolidation.

C)

dreams as a side effect of neural exercise.

D)

sleep as a biological rhythm that affects motor performance.

33.

The circadian clock in all mammals is apparently located in a specific nucleus in the hypothalamus, which:

A)

also regulates body temperature and sexual activities.

B)

contains rhythm-generating neurons and receives direct input from the eyes.

C)

produces the reduced cortical activity of slow-wave sleep.

D)

has direct input to the pituitary gland and the occipital lobe of the cortex.

34.

The pons contains two interconnected sets of neurons, one to produce the increased brain activity of REM sleep and the other to ______ at that time.

A)

inhibit motor neurons

B)

cause rapid eye movements

C)

increase melatonin levels

D)

synchronize brain waves

35.

Which of the following is not a common part of the arousal response that helps prepare the body for "fight or flight"?

A)

Blood is diverted away from skeletal muscles.

B)

Blood pressure and heart rate increase.

C)

Breathing becomes faster.

D)

Sugar and fat molecules are released into the bloodstream.

36.

Somewhat nervous at your piano audition for a prestigious school of music, you perform your prepared selections very well but falter over a new and difficult piece that the judges ask you to try. Which of the following would have predicted this outcome?

A)

James's peripheral feedback theory of emotion

B)

the Yerkes-Dodson law concerning arousal and performance

C)

Schachter's theory of the role of cognition in emotion

D)

Ekman's facial feedback theory of emotion

37.

The perception of certain environmental events gives rise to bodily arousal, and the awareness of this arousal is emotion, according to:

A)

the Yerkes-Dodson Law.

B)

the facial feedback theory.

C)

Schachter's cognition-plus-feedback theory of emotion.

D)

James's peripheral-feedback theory of emotion.

38.

Which of the following best describes Schachter's cognition-plus-feedback theory of emotion?

A)

Perception of the stimulus influences the type of emotion felt, and the degree of bodily arousal influences the intensity of the emotion felt.

B)

A distinctly different constellation of bodily changes is associated with each emotional state, and it is that pattern that tells us which emotion we are experiencing.

C)

The perception of an event generates a complete emotional state and this state, in turn, causes bodily changes to occur as an aftereffect.

D)

Thought processes are more decisive than bodily changes in the production of emotional states; in fact, they are necessary and sufficient for emotional experience.

1.

B

2.

D

3.

A

4.

A

5.

A

6.

D

7.

D

8.

A

9.

C

10.

A

11.

A

12.

A

13.

C

14.

D

15.

C

16.

A

17.

D

18.

B

19.

C

20.

C

21.

B

22.

B

23.

A

24.

A

25.

D

26.

A

27.

B

28.

C

29.

B

30.

C

31.

C

32.

B

33.

B

34.

A

35.

A

36.

B

37.

D

38.

A