1.

Research with newborn human infants on pattern recognition suggests that they:

A)

cannot discern visual patterns.

B)

prefer solid colors to patterned stimuli.

C)

become habituated to a stimulus after a while.

D)

become generally fatigued after a few minutes of looking at a stimulus.

2.

Beginning within a few weeks after birth, infants manifest a special interest in aspects of their environment that they:

A)

themselves can control.

B)

have been shown before.

C)

have actively examined.

D)

can see but not touch.

3.

Alexa is a 6-month-old girl who is holding a candlestick in front of her face, turning it about, squeezing it, even putting it in her mouth. Alexa's behavior illustrates:

A)

joint visual attention.

B)

early knowledge of physics.

C)

examining.

D)

selective looking.

4.

Babies will look at an adult's eyes and then directs their own gaze towards whatever the adult is looking at. This behavior is known as:

A)

examining.

B)

joint visual attention.

C)

selective looking.

D)

social referencing.

5.

While two-year-old Yuri explores games and toys in a toy store, she constantly looks back at her father's expression for clues about what objects are okay to touch. Looking to her father for indications of how to act is called:

A)

joint visual attention.

B)

social referencing.

C)

habituation.

D)

selective-looking.

6.

Developmental studies of core principles of physical knowledge in infants have shown that core principles:

A)

appear to be present even in very young infants, but nuances related to them are acquired with age and experience.

B)

must be learned through active experimentation and exploration of the world.

C)

including subtle nuances are inborn and central to human perception.

D)

must be directly taught to infants.

7.

Renée Baillargeon showed infants as young as 3½ months a possible event (a solid screen obscuring a solid object) and an impossible event (a solid screen passing through a solid object). In contrast to Piaget's conclusion regarding the age at which physical principles are understood, Baillargeon's infants looked:

A)

longer at the impossible than at the possible event.

B)

longer at the possible than at the impossible event.

C)

about equally long at both events.

D)

for the ball and tried to retrieve it in both conditions.

8.

Suppose someone shakes a rattle in front of a delighted 4-month-old and then hides it under a pillow while the infant watches. According to Piaget, the infant is most likely to:

A)

transfer attention to the pillow, which suggests an undeveloped attention span.

B)

look at the researcher, which suggests an understanding of cause and effect.

C)

make no effort to find the object and even to lose interest in it, which suggests an inability to understand object permanence.

D)

cry, which suggests an understanding of deprivation but an intolerance for frustration.

9.

Research has shown that infants who are experienced crawlers or walkers will show signs of stress when placed on the deep side of a visual cliff, whereas infants who are inexperienced crawlers or walkers will show signs of interest without fear. How does the author of your text interpret these findings?

A)

Infants who move successfully must learn to adjust to a continuously changing view of their environment as they move, and this learned ability leads them to a new level of understanding regarding heights and falling.

B)

Infants who are experienced crawlers or walkers have fallen down more often than noncrawling, nonwalking infants and have therefore learned to fear heights and to fear falling.

C)

Natural selection has likely provided human infants with a tendency to fear heights and a neural mechanism that activates this fear only after self-produced locomotion begins.

D)

Fear of heights is instinctive in humans, whether adults or infants, just as it is other animals, but the physiological mechanisms underlying the stress response take time to mature.

10.

According to Piaget, schemes:

A)

are internal, mental representations of objects or actions.

B)

become increasingly abstract and sophisticated with development.

C)

grow as a result of both assimilation and accommodation.

D)

all of the above

11.

Piaget suggests that a child who encounters an experience that does not quite fit an existing scheme will have to modify that scheme somewhat. He called this process:

A)

accommodation.

B)

internalization.

C)

assimilation.

D)

explicitation.

12.

A young child, Charlie, has a scheme for thinking about stairs. For him, some stairs involve many steps, and others involve only a few; all stairs involve locomotion. One day Charlie encounters an escalator for the first time. Assimilation would occur if Charlie were to ______, and accommodation would occur if he were to ______.

A)

change his stairs scheme to include the possibility of standing still on stairs when the stairs themselves move; include the escalator in his stairs scheme

B)

include the escalator in his stairs scheme; change his stairs scheme to include the possibility of standing still on stairs when the stairs themselves move

C)

develop a new scheme for mechanisms that will move him from one place to another without the need for self-locomotion; change his stairs scheme to include the possibility of standing still on stairs when the stairs themselves move

D)

include the escalator in his stairs scheme; develop a new scheme for mechanisms that will move him from one place to another without the need for self-locomotion

13.

Piaget labeled infancy the ______ stage of development, in which thought takes the form of ______.

A)

preoperational; abstract symbols

B)

preoperational; action

C)

sensorimotor; abstract symbols

D)

sensorimotor; action

14.

Joe's mother gives him and his sister each an equal-sized bologna sandwich for lunch. She cuts Joe's sandwich into two pieces and his sister's sandwich into four pieces. Joe begins crying because he thinks his sister has more sandwich than he does. Joe apparently does not understand Piaget's principle of:

A)

conservation.

B)

object permanence.

C)

zone of proximal development.

D)

invisible displacement.

15.

According to Piaget, a characteristic that distinguishes formal-operational thinking is the ability to:

A)

assimilate and accommodate experiences.

B)

reason about hypothetical situations.

C)

symbolize absent objects.

D)

coordinate motor movements to explore the environment.

16.

Which of the following is a commonly cited limitation of Piaget's developmental theory?

A)

He offered no research data to support his theory.

B)

The popularity of his theory constricted and limited the range of research from other theoretical perspectives.

C)

He overestimated the importance of age differences in children's ways of thinking.

D)

He wrongly suggested that children actively promote their own mental development.

17.

Theorists who approach cognitive development from the information-processing perspective attempt to link specific changes in children's intellectual abilities to:

A)

global changes in the mind.

B)

physiological changes in the brain.

C)

learning opportunities in the child's environment.

D)

changes in one or another of the mind's components or the acquisition of specific knowledge.

18.

Information-processing theorist Juan Pascual-Leone showed mathematically that Piaget's stages of cognitive development can be explained in terms of a:

A)

gradual increase in working-memory capacity.

B)

series of sudden increases in working-memory capacity.

C)

gradual increase in the variety of actions undertaken.

D)

series of sudden increases in the variety of actions undertaken.

19.

Johan is working on a specific type of physics problem in which people seem to use one of four increasingly advanced rules. Johan has been apparently using rule 1 (the most primitive) so far. According to Siegler's findings on balance-beam problems, Johan should at best be able to move up to using rule(s) ______ if given feedback that disconfirms rule(s) ______.

A)

2; 1

B)

2 or 3; 1

C)

2 or 3; 1 and 2

D)

4; 1 through 3

20.

The British psychologist Annette Karmiloff-Smith hypothesized a mental process that allows us to think consciously about, and deliberately modify, an action that was previously carried out automatically. She called this process:

A)

explicitation.

B)

proceduralization.

C)

redescription.

D)

rule acquisition.

21.

Which of the following statements comparing Piaget and Vygotsky is true?

A)

Piaget emphasized the child's interaction with the environment, whereas Vygotsky thought such interaction was irrelevant.

B)

Piaget emphasized the role of language in thought, whereas Vygotsky believed that language and thought remained separate functions.

C)

Vygotsky believed that intellectual development involves the child's mental representation of experience, whereas Piaget did not.

D)

Vygotsky believed that the social world was most critical to intellectual development, whereas Piaget emphasized the physical world.

22.

Piaget interpreted the noncommunicative "conversation" in which 4-year-olds typically engage as evidence of ______, whereas Vygotsky saw it as evidence of ______.

A)

concrete-operational thinking; preoperational thinking

B)

preoperational thinking; concrete-operational thinking

C)

an inability to understand the purpose of language; speech as an aid to thinking

D)

speech as an aid to thinking; an inability to understand the purpose of language

23.

According to Vygotsky, the development of critical thinking comes mainly from:

A)

independent exploration and examination of the physical world.

B)

the social and collaborative activity of dialogue.

C)

a progressive step-by-step acquisition of increasingly complex rules.

D)

the ability to understand false beliefs and distinguish pretense from reality.

24.

In the container test, children are shown a familiar kind of container such as an M&M bag and asked what the bag contains. Most 3- and 4-year-old children respond appropriately and are then asked to open the bag. Once opened, the bag is found to contain an unpredicted item, such as a pencil. The bag is then closed, and the children are asked to guess what another person who has not looked inside will think is in it. What typically happens?

A)

Most 3- and 4-year-olds will answer "M&Ms."

B)

Most 3- and 4-year-olds will answer "pencil."

C)

Most 3-year-olds will answer with "pencil," but most 4-year-olds will answer "M&Ms."

D)

Most 3-year-olds will give a specific prediction, but most 4-year-olds will refuse to answer.

25.

Autistic children perform significantly worse than their normal peers on false-belief tests and on tests of ability to deceive others or to detect deception but perform significantly better than their normal peers on false-picture tests. Such findings best support which of the following statements?

A)

The human capacity to understand mental representations is distinct from the capacity to understand physical representations.

B)

The language deficits of autistic children seem clearly to result from a lack of interest in communication.

C)

The drive to explore the real physical properties of objects is innate in humans, while the ability to make one object stand for another or to engage in pretend play must be learned.

D)

Understanding symbolism and false beliefs requires greater intelligence than understanding the properties and laws of the physical world.

26.

How many morphemes are contained in the word dispassionately?

A)

1

B)

3

C)

4

D)

5

27.

The words bear and bare involve:

A)

different morphemes and phonemes.

B)

the same morphemes and phonemes.

C)

different morphemes, but the same phonemes.

D)

the same morphemes, but different phonemes.

28.

A phoneme is:

A)

a rule of language.

B)

an elementary vowel or consonant sound.

C)

the smallest meaningful unit of language.

D)

the appropriate use of words in context.

29.

Even though people cannot usually name or describe the rules of grammar, they can tell that "That tree was a riot of color" is grammatical and "The riot color of tree was a" is not grammatical. This illustrates:

A)

the difference between surface structure and deep structure.

B)

the arbitrariness of language.

C)

the tacit nature of grammatical knowledge.

D)

the difference between functional and positional understanding.

30.

Experiments with 3-day-old infants show that they:

A)

do not have sufficiently developed auditory processing to differentiate sounds.

B)

prefer high-pitched sounds to mid- or low-pitched sounds.

C)

prefer human speech to other sounds.

D)

prefer soothing instrumental music to other sounds.

31.

A child who says "soo, soo" only when her shoes are being put on and in no other context is probably using the sound as a(n):

A)

true word.

B)

performative.

C)

grammatical morpheme.

D)

proceduralization.

32.

A child who uses the word wawa to refer not only to water but to milk, juice, and other drinks is:

A)

overextending the word.

B)

babbling.

C)

exhibiting autism.

D)

using the word as a performative.

33.

Noam Chomsky accounts for children's ability to learn something as complex as language by hypothesizing the existence of a language-acquisition device (LAD). This device is:

A)

a set of inborn aids that permit children to understand the elements of grammar common to all languages and to acquire the rules specific to their own.

B)

an innate mechanism that predisposes adults to speak slowly, simply, and with broad gestures when talking to young children.

C)

the range of social interactions that contribute to the child's successful acquisition of the culture's language.

D)

an innate mechanism that permits children to understand how to use language operantly, in order to gain rewards.

34.

Parentese, the simplification of a language by an adult speaking to a young child, is an example of a(n):

A)

language-acquisition support system.

B)

innate language-acquisition device.

C)

social custom that inhibits the child's acquisition of language.

D)

form of pidgin language.

35.

Sue Savage-Rumbaugh reported that Kanzi, a bonobo:

A)

understands many spoken English words.

B)

only learned to use lexigrams if explicitly rewarded.

C)

does not use lexigrams symbolically.

D)

has grammatical skills comparable to those of a 6-year-old child.

36.

Describe the modal model of memory. Be sure to discuss major memory components and control processes. What are two pieces of evidence that tend to support this model?

37.

What is attention? What evidence is there for the ability to select in studies of selective listening? In studies of selective viewing? In both listening and viewing, what does the evidence suggest about the fate of unattended information?

38.

What is chunking and why is it important? How is chunking related to the development of expertise?

39.

Discuss interference as a cause of forgetting. Distinguish between proactive and retroactive interference, giving one example of each.

40.

Describe episodic, semantic, and procedural information and give examples to illustrate each. Indicate for each whether it is a form of explicit or implicit memory. Present neuropsychological evidence that supports one of the distinctions (episodic versus semantic or explicit versus implicit).

41.

Explain three principles or techniques supported by memory research that you could directly use to improve your memory performance.

42.

Choose three of the following theorists: Francis Galton, Alfred Binet, Charles Spearman, Robert Sternberg, and Raymond Cattell. Compare and contrast their respective views on the nature of intelligence.

43.

The question of whether intelligence is one ability or many is central in the history of research on intelligence. Present your own conclusions, supporting your position with research evidence.

44.

Explain the concept of heritability. Discuss the use of twins to estimate the heritability of intelligence. Be sure to explain the rationale and summarize the typical findings of each method.

45.

Suppose a friend of yours has complained about being a poor problem solver. Suggest three specific and distinct ways in which your friend could improve his or her problem-solving performance.

46.

Support the assertion that children are naturally and actively interested in stimuli and experiences that will contribute to their mental growth.

47.

How do crawling and noncrawling infants differ in terms of heart rate responses to the visual cliff? What do these differences mean? What kind of prior experience leads crawling infants to respond to the cliff as they do? Support your answer by citing evidence.

48.

Discuss Jean Piaget's theory of mental development. Be sure to explain the central concepts, list the four stages, and characterize the intellect of the child at two of the four stages in your answer.

49.

How do information-processing theorists approach cognitive development? Describe two general developmental changes identified by information-processing theorists.

50.

In what sense are children aspiring everyday psychologists? What is the role of make-believe play in this development? How do autistic children differ in this area?

51.

Explain the concepts of an LAD and an LASS. Present evidence for the reality of each.

_ 52.

The modal model of the mind proposes that memory consists of three main components, called:

A)

sensory memory, preattentive memory, and long-term memory.

B)

sensory memory, working memory, and long-term memory.

C)

short-term memory, working memory, and semantic memory.

D)

iconic memory, echoic memory, and working memory.

53.

Suppose you are concentrating on driving through a busy intersection when your passenger asks you a question you don't attend to. You say "What?" but before the question is repeated, you "hear" it from your own memory. Presumably, a trace still existed in your:

A)

working memory.

B)

sensory memory.

C)

implicit memory.

D)

long-term memory.

54.

Cognitive psychologists often liken working memory to the ______ of a computer.

A)

keyboard

B)

printer

C)

central processing unit

D)

monitor

55.

New information in working memory ______ pass on to ______.

A)

may or may not; short-term memory

B)

must; sensory memory

C)

may or may not; long-term memory

D)

must; long-term memory

56.

Jack, a college freshman, is trying to remember the name of his first grade teacher. The transfer of information from Jack's long-term memory to his working memory is called:

A)

encoding.

B)

retrieval.

C)

attention.

D)

maintenance rehearsal.

57.

Eriksen and Collins asked subjects to view two images. Alone, neither image was recognizable, but when superimposed, they formed a nonsense syllable. Subjects identified the syllable even when the images were flashed successively, which indicated that:

A)

sensory information is automatically transferred to long-term memory.

B)

memory is not always involved in visual perception.

C)

iconic memory holds information in its original sensory form.

D)

visual memory is more efficient than auditory memory.

58.

The phenomenon of phonemic restoration, first discussed in Chapter 8, is referred to again in the memory and consciousness chapter as evidence that:

A)

modification of information can occur within auditory sensory memory.

B)

information in sensory memory is entirely passive.

C)

echoic memory interacts with iconic memory.

D)

sensory memory is extremely high in capacity.

59.

The most common components in models of attention include all of the following except a:

A)

selector.

B)

preattentive-processing compartment.

C)

holding compartment.

D)

post-attentive-processing compartment.

60.

Ellen is a subject in a dichotic listening experiment. She is asked to shadow (repeat immediately) the words coming into her left ear and to ignore the words coming into her right ear. Later she is asked questions about the message in her right ear. Which of the following is she most likely to know about that unattended message?

A)

its overall meaning

B)

specific words but without any meaningful connections among them

C)

the gender of the speaker

D)

whether or not any foreign-language phrases were inserted into the message

61.

Studies (by MacKay and others) have shown that if you are selectively listening to one of two messages your performance:

A)

can be affected by the unattended message only if you are conscious of it.

B)

can be affected by the unattended message even if you are not conscious of it.

C)

can be affected by the unattended message only in ways that have nothing to do with the meaning of that message.

D)

cannot be affected by the unattended message.

62.

Kendra was the only participant shown a photograph of an apple when the experiment began. Later in the experiment, she was able to identify a sketchy drawing as that of an apple when the other participants did not. Kendra's ability to identify the drawing as an apple was due to:

A)

priming.

B)

procedural memory.

C)

selective viewing.

D)

discrimination training.

63.

The Stroop effect is due to:

A)

the power of context on perception.

B)

the automatic nature of skilled reading.

C)

unconscious depth processing.

D)

choosing an inappropriate frame of reference.

64.

The span of short-term memory refers to the:

A)

number of pronounceable items that can be held in working memory at any given time.

B)

number of pronounceable items that can be transferred from sensory memory to short-term memory in 1 minute.

C)

length of time an item can last in short-term memory without benefit of rehearsal.

D)

number of items that can be transferred from short-term memory to long-term memory in 1 minute.

65.

Bertha has just returned home from a class field trip to a museum. Her mother asks her to describe one of the dinosaurs she saw. In order to do so, Bertha recreates a picture of the dinosaur in her mind. The part of memory that allows this mental image of the dinosaur to be formed is:

A)

the phonological loop.

B)

iconic memory.

C)

echoic memory.

D)

the visuospatial sketch pad.

66.

Neuropsychological research has shown that when a person calls forth a visual image or a visual memory, the areas of the brain known to be involved in immediate visual perception:

A)

become active.

B)

are inactive, but adjacent areas do become active.

C)

show activity if the person draws the mental image, but not if the person describes it in words.

D)

show activity if the person describes the mental image in words, but not if the person draws it.

67.

Maintenance rehearsal is the general term for the process by which people ______, and encoding rehearsal is the general term for the process by which people ______.

A)

keep information in working memory; move information from working memory into long-term memory

B)

move information from working memory into long-term memory; move information from sensory memory into working memory

C)

move information from sensory memory into working memory; move information from working memory into long-term memory

D)

keep information in sensory and working memory; move information from sensory memory into working memory and from working memory into long-term memory

68.

Marcia Heiman found that college students who were taught to generate questions and think about answers as part of their studying earned ______ grades than otherwise comparable students. Her research provides evidence that ______ leads to better long-term memory.

A)

higher; elaborative rehearsal

B)

higher; rote learning

C)

lower; elaborative rehearsal

D)

lower; rote learning

69.

Given what you know about elaborative rehearsal, it makes sense that the text recommends ______ as a superior method for learning textbook material.

A)

highlighting the text material

B)

reading the text three times, each reading 2 days after the previous one

C)

generating questions about the material you've read

D)

memorizing the key terms in the chapter

70.

In a digit span test, Bill was able to recall the 12 individual numbers 194719481949 by grouping the digits together to form higher-order units. His technique for remembering the numbers as three years 1947, 1948, 1949 rather than 12 individual digits is called:

A)

chunking.

B)

hierarchical organization.

C)

procedural memory.

D)

priming.

71.

In order to remember the areas of the brain for your psychology exam, you think of them in terms of the largest structures to the smallest. For example, first there is the cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex has a right and left hemisphere. Each hemisphere contains a frontal, occipital, parietal, and temporal lobe. This memory strategy is referred to as:

A)

chunking.

B)

hierarchical organization.

C)

visualization.

D)

maintenance rehearsal.

72.

Ebinghaus' rapid rate of forgetting in his list learning studies was probably due to:

A)

retroactive interference.

B)

chunking.

C)

proactive interference.

D)

decay.

73.

Imagine that you plan to give subjects two lists of items to remember. If the first is a list of pets and you want to minimize interference between the lists, which of the following would be the worst topic to choose for the second list?

A)

other pets

B)

farm animals

C)

furniture

D)

It wouldn't matter what the topic was--a., b., and c. would be equally likely to produce interference.

74.

Aristotle's principle of association by contiguity could help to explain our ability to recall:

A)

objects commonly associated with a named object.

B)

the characteristics of a named object.

C)

events that commonly follow or precede a named event.

D)

all of the above.

75.

The model of memory organization proposed by Collins and Loftus would be supported by the finding that subjects take longer to recognize a word when:

A)

the preceding word is not directly connected in their network (such as with dog-red) than when it is directly connected (such as with apple-red).

B)

it is not in the same grammatical category as the preceding word (such as with apple-red) than when it is (such as with apple-dog).

C)

it is not associated by contiguity with the preceding word (such as with dinner-sunset) than when it is (such as with breakfast-sunset).

D)

it is of a different level of abstraction from the preceding word (such as with animal-dog) than when it is at the same level of abstraction (such as with tiger-dog).

76.

Timo Mantyla found that recall of 500 nouns was highest on a surprise memory test (over 90 percent) when subjects were given, at the time of testing:

A)

similar-sounding words that had unrelated meanings.

B)

meaningfully related words carefully selected by the researcher as retrieval cues.

C)

a set of three related words per noun that other subjects had made up at the time of encoding.

D)

a set of three related words per noun that the subjects themselves had generated up at the time of encoding.

77.

While in the living room, you think of something you need from the bedroom, but when you get there, you forget what you wanted. You go back to the same spot in the living room and the memory returns. In other words, you solved your memory problem by taking advantage of:

A)

retroactive interference.

B)

the existence of a mental script.

C)

context-dependent memory.

D)

proactive interference.

78.

In research by Elizabeth Loftus and John Palmer, subjects viewed films depicting an auto accident and then were asked a question about the accident using either the word hit or the word smashed. The subjects:

A)

gave similar accounts of the accident regardless of the word used.

B)

gave a higher estimate of vehicle speed when the question used the neutral word hit than when it used the biasing word smashed.

C)

more often reported seeing broken glass even though there was none when the question used smashed than when it used hit.

D)

did both b. and c.

79.

Source confusion is thought to be a primary cause of most if not all cases of:

A)

implicit memory.

B)

spreading activation.

C)

false memory construction.

D)

temperal lobe amnesia.

80.

Recalling one's own childhood birthdays is an example of:

A)

episodic memory.

B)

implicit memory.

C)

procedural memory.

D)

semantic memory.

81.

Semantic memory and episodic memory are both subclasses of:

A)

short-term memory.

B)

iconic memory.

C)

implicit memory.

D)

explicit memory.

82.

Your knowledge that automobile emissions contribute to air pollution is an example of ______ memory, which is a subclass of ______ memory.

A)

semantic; implicit

B)

semantic; explicit

C)

episodic; implicit

D)

episodic; explicit

83.

A child shows off her new-found ability to tie her shoe. She has most directly demonstrated an addition to her ______ memory.

A)

episodic

B)

sensory

C)

procedural

D)

semantic

84.

Imagine that on your way to class you glimpse a fire truck. You don't think about the truck or consciously remember it. Later, however, you are asked in a writing course to develop a story outline. Your outline contains references to heat, bright red, and fire. If these references were the result of your earlier exposure to the fire truck, you would be showing the effect of:

A)

explicit memory.

B)

context-dependent memory.

C)

priming.

D)

classical conditioning.

85.

After surgical removal of parts of his temporal lobe and limbic system as treatment for epilepsy, the patient H. M. experienced a form of severe amnesia which made him unable to remember:

A)

pictorial information.

B)

motor skills that he learned after the surgery.

C)

personal events that occurred before the surgery.

D)

personal events that occurred after the surgery.

86.

The current conclusion drawn from studies of people with temporal-lobe amnesia is that the hippocampus and nearby parts of the temporal lobe are essential for encoding:

A)

neither long-term explicit memories nor long-term implicit memories.

B)

both long-term explicit memories and long-term implicit memories.

C)

long-term implicit memories but not long-term explicit memories.

D)

long-term explicit memories but not long-term implicit memories.

87.

Alfred Binet, a pioneer in modern intelligence testing, thought intelligence was best understood as a:

A)

single general ability to process information.

B)

collection of higher-order mental abilities that might be only loosely related to one another.

C)

genetically based and biologically limited capacity for responding to sensory stimuli.

D)

cluster of verbal abilities and a cluster of mechanical-performance abilities.

88.

In the Binet and Simon scoring system, an 8-year-old child who performed as well as an average 10-year-old would be assigned a mental age (or mental level) of:

A)

2.

B)

8.

C)

10.

D)

125.

89.

In the formula IQ = (MA/CA) x 100, MA refers to:

A)

minimum aptitude.

B)

mental arousal.

C)

mean aptitude.

D)

mental age.

90.

Norman received a score of 90 on a Wechsler IQ test. Compared to the distribution of IQ scores from other individuals similar to Norman, his score is:

A)

below the mean.

B)

at the mean.

C)

above the mean.

D)

unknown because modern intelligence tests no longer represent IQ in this manner.

91.

If an IQ test is valid, it should:

A)

produce approximately the same score each time a person takes it, under a variety of conditions.

B)

correlate strongly with other accepted measures of a person's intelligence.

C)

be sensitive to changes in a person's circumstances and frame of mind.

D)

clearly distinguish among separate mental abilities.

92.

Spearman noted that when a battery of mental tests was administered to a large group of people, the scores did not correlate perfectly with one another. He took this as evidence that:

A)

a general intelligence, g, is responsible for test performance.

B)

intelligence consists of distinct, primary mental abilities rather than general intelligence.

C)

each score is affected by a specific ability, s.

D)

the tests suffered from measurement error.

93.

Which of the following peaks latest in life?

A)

crystallized intelligence

B)

fluid intelligence

C)

mental speed

D)

the capacity of working memory

94.

The modern attempt to find simple factors, such as mental speed, that underlie general intelligence is most closely related to the earlier work of:

A)

Binet.

B)

Galton.

C)

Cattell.

D)

Spearman.

95.

The positive correlation between digit span and mental speed:

A)

supports the ecological perspective on intelligence.

B)

gives credence to the notion of multiple intelligences.

C)

suggests that mental speed contributes to intelligence by aiding working memory.

D)

suggests that the hemispheric differences demonstrated in individuals with brain damage should not be generalized to the population at large.

96.In Sternberg's theory of intelligence, metacomponents are responsible for:

A)

establishing goals and problem-solving strategies.

B)

the more mechanical aspects of problem solving.

C)

producing behavioral responses but not for purely mental events.

D)

encoding, comparing, and retrieving information.

97.

If there is high heritability for a trait within groups, heritability across groups:

A)

must be high.

B)

can still be zero.

C)

cannot be zero.

D)

must be at least moderate but need not be high.

98.

Suppose we measure characteristic X in siblings reared together and find a .11 correlation for adopted siblings who are biologically unrelated, compared with a .56 correlation for fraternal twins and a 0.93 correlation for identical twins. This suggests that:

A)

environment contributes comparatively little to variation in characteristic X.

B)

heredity contributes little or nothing to variation in characteristic X.

C)

environment contributes greatly to variation in characteristic X, but only for twins.

D)

both heredity and environment contribute substantially to variation in characteristic X.

99.

Which of the following statements about heritability is true?

A)

A heritability coefficient is just another name for a correlation coefficient obtained from a twin study.

B)

Because it depends on the assumptions one makes, any method of calculating heritability gives only a rough approximation.

C)

Heritability is a purely theoretical concept and never actually can be expressed quantitatively.

D)

Heritability can be precisely calculated using modern formulas.

100.

The influence of family environment on a person's IQ:

A)

declines considerably in adulthood.

B)

is so important that later environmental influences have little effect.

C)

is great for fluid but not crystallized intelligence.

D)

is essentially zero in all groups tested.

101.

Researchers investigated whether the social or biological designation "Black" was critical to Black-White IQ differences often observed. They found that the ______ designation was what mattered, suggesting a(n) ______ explanation for Black-White IQ differences.

A)

social; environmental

B)

biological; environmental

C)

social; genetic

D)

biological; genetic

102.

The idea that intelligence is strictly unidimensional (that is, a single ability) is contradicted by:

A)

factor-analytic studies.

B)

evidence from individuals with brain damage in the right or left hemisphere.

C)

the existence of retarded savants.

D)

all of the above.

103.

Human calendar calculators perform some astounding intellectual feats--such as instantly figuring out what day of the week October 12 fell on in 1532--but have low measured intelligence overall. Such individuals:

A)

are retarded savants.

B)

illustrate the intellectual impact of being a castelike minority.

C)

provide evidence that intelligence is unitary in nature.

D)

are typically studied from the ecological perspective.

104.

A psychologist studies wholesale dairy truck drivers, bartenders, and people in other sales-related jobs who solve complex mathematical problems in the course of their work day. If her findings are consistent with similar studies, she would find that:

A)

job performance correlates highly with number of years of formal schooling.

B)

abilities learned in school generalize quite well to occupational computations.

C)

both a. and b.

D)

neither a. nor b.

105.

How do non-Westerners unschooled in Western-style reasoning typically differ from Westerners in the way they sort objects into categories?

A)

Non-Westerners often prefer to sort objects by immediate function rather than by abstract taxonomy.

B)

Non-Westerners typically fail to understand abstract taxonomies and sort by immediate function instead.

C)

Non-Westerners tend to make finer distinctions than do Westerners and sort objects into more categories.

D)

Westerners tend to make finer distinctions than do non-Westerners and sort objects into more categories.

106.

Studies of people in cultures that depend on hunting and fishing for their survival, such as Eskimos, show that they commonly perform:

A)

better on visual-spatial tests than do people who survive by other means, which indicates that a culture's way of life can affect the intellectual abilities its people develop.

B)

better on both verbal and spatial tests than do people who survive by other means, which indicates that such traditional cultures can promote sophisticated intellectual performance.

C)

more poorly on visual-spatial tests than do people who survive by other means, which indicates that there is little relationship between real-life spatial abilities and test scores.

D)

about as well on visual-spatial tests as people who survive by other means, which indicates that the demands of one's way of life have little or no effect on the intellectual abilities developed by a people.

107.

What kind of reasoning task is typified by the sequence-completion problem 2, 4, 8, ______?

A)

deductive

B)

inductive

C)

conditional

D)

ecological

108.

Given information that one person had been selected randomly from a group of 70 engineers and 30 lawyers, subjects were asked to estimate the likelihood that the person was an engineer. When they were also given a personality description that was no more stereotypical of engineers than of lawyers, subjects typically estimated the likelihood that the person was an engineer at:

A)

70 percent, demonstrating recognition of the 70:30 ratio.

B)

50 percent, demonstrating a tendency to ignore base rates in the presence of other information.

C)

30 percent, demonstrating confirmation bias.

D)

no percentage. Claiming that the information was inadequate, they refused to estimate.

109.

When asked to estimate the average number of recorded terrorist acts per year since 1970, people will give higher estimates if there has recently been a highly publicized terrorist incident. This exemplifies the:

A)

availability bias.

B)

representativeness bias.

C)

base-rate bias.

D)

confirmation bias.

110.

Peter Wason gave subjects a set of three numbers and asked them to guess his rule for sequencing the numbers. He found that most subjects tested their hypotheses by generating sequences ______ with their current hypothesis, which led to ______ at the task.

A)

inconsistent; success

B)

inconsistent; failure

C)

consistent; success

D)

consistent; failure

111.

Consider the following syllogism: All intelligence tests are composed of questions. The WAIS-R is an intelligence test. Is the WAIS-R composed of questions? Solving syllogisms by formal logic requires the use of:

A)

heuristics.

B)

induction.

C)

deduction.

D)

base rates.

112.

Insight problems such as the nine-dot problem require the problem solver to:

A)

use subgoals.

B)

abandon subgoals.

C)

break out of a mental set.

D)

use verbal reasoning rather than visualization.

113.

Watching a comedy film or doing something else to reduce anxiety can help people to transcend a mental set by promoting:

A)

functional fixedness.

B)

intense concentration.

C)

perceptual reorganization.

D)

memory retrieval.

114.

If the stick-configuration problem is restated so that people focus on squares rather than individual sticks, success is more likely because it:

A)

increases the tendency to use a trial-and-error approach.

B)

causes people to use an algorithmic approach.

C)

greatly reduces the number of trials needed for a trial-and-error solution.

D)

makes people less likely to use deductive reasoning.

115.

Sandy wants to call her friend, but she has lost his phone number. Sandy considers dialing every possible combination of 7 digits until she eventually contacts her friend. Because it wouldn't really be practical, she dismisses this particular ______ as a means to solve her problem.

A)

heuristic

B)

analogy

C)

algorithm

D)

subgoal

116.

A problem that has a clearly stated initial state, goal, and operations for reaching the goal is, by definition, a(n) ______ problem.

A)

ill-defined

B)

well-defined

C)

deductive reasoning

D)

inductive reasoning

117.

Evidence for linguistic relativity has been provided by the:

A)

superior mathematical performance of Asian children compared with American and European children.

B)

inability of unschooled people from non-Western cultures to sort taxonomically.

C)

incredible spatial abilities of Eskimos living above the Arctic Circle.

D)

IQ differences between the Buraku and other Japanese.

118.

Research suggests that the generic use of man to refer to humans in general:

A)

produces a tendency to think of males more than females.

B)

produces a reactive tendency to think of females more than males.

C)

produces a tendency to think of adults more than children.

D)

has no effect on thinking because in this sense man does not mean "adult human male."

1.

C

2.

A

3.

C

4.

B

5.

B

6.

A

7.

A

8.

C

9.

C

10.

D

11.